(Note: These are questions I fielded on Sunday, 5/10/15. —geno)
Q1. When you say that you don’t believe that the Bible neither confirms homosexuality or condemns it, are you proposing a sitting on the fence approach?
I said very clearly in my message that I thought homosexual sexual engagement was sin. Here is the actual sentence which I read and repeated:
“Let me say at the outset that I do not believe the Bible condemns same-sex orientation per se. This text and others, I believe, condemn homosexual sexual acts and those who engage in them.”
[Operator’s note – I think this question was using “homosexuality” to mean “homosexual feelings” and not “homosexual liaisons”]
Let me assume the best intentions in the question and re-phrase it to ask whether I believe the Bible takes a neutral stance with regard to same-sex orientation. My view would be close to that. I simply do not believe the Bible speaks to the question at all.
Q2. In saying that orientation itself is not sinful, does this mean God does not wish to alter which gender someone is attracted to?
I am not certain what the mind of God is on this matter. I do not believe the Bible speaks to God’s desire here. Where I see silence on such matters I think it best not to make pronouncements.
Q3. Why do you think Paul only references males in 1st Corinthians 6:9?
I think Paul only references males in this text (see below) because the most egregious and public homosexual engagement was between males in Corinth. This does not mean there weren’t prominent lesbians in Corinth, it just means that Paul’s audience would know instantly that to which he was pointing when he wrote this letter.
Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, ESV)